Response to ‘lostsheepofisrael’ on his ‘Free from Law or Free from Sin. Part 3’ Comment.

11 Mar

Hi Jay,

Let me try to answer you as best I can.  Again, your words are in bold.

Shalom,
I have another query about Paul. Does this not say that he does not keep the law? Very strange how he jumps around. Maybe I am misunderstanding?

I don’t think it is strange at all.  Paul does not jump around.  It was me in my writing that jumped around.  Paul is an incredible scholar and has an amazing way of setting out his arguments.  He does it like any good lawyer.  You lay the foundation, and then from there you build on that foundation.  Paul has done that in a fantastic way in Romans.  It’s people who twist what he says –  whether it be Christians or those who do not take the time or the effort to truly search out a matter – who end up condemning Paul for their lack of understanding or lack of responsibility with the Scriptures.  Both have a just end.

19 Even though I am a free man with no master,(He has no master, my master is Yahweh). I have become a slave to all people to bring many to Christ. 20 When I was with the Jews, I lived like a Jew to bring the Jews to Christ. When I was with those who follow the Jewish law, I too lived under that law. Even though I am not subject to the law, I did this so I could bring to Christ those who are under the law. 21 When I am with the Gentiles who do not follow the Jewish law(so he does not keep sabbath or what could this possibly mean?),[a] I too live apart from that law so I can bring them to Christ. But I do not ignore the law of God; I obey the law of Christ.

As you have not included a reference to the above passage I will.  It is 1 Corinthians 9:19-21.  The very first thing I am going to say about what you have put here is this:  You need to change the version that you are reading.  Remember translations are not the inerrant word of YHVH, but the original is.  Paraphrases are even worse than translations.  They take a translation and then change it into their words for so called better understanding.  All they do is project their biased theology onto the Scriptures when they do this.  So again I suggest you change the ‘bible’ you are reading to one that is more accurate.  Below are the verses from a very good translation that I use:

19 For though I am free from all, I made myself a servant to all, in order to win more, 20 and to the Yehudim̱ I became as a Yehuḏite, that I might win Yehuḏim; to those who are under law, as under law, so as to win those who are under law; 21 to those without law, as without law – not being without Torah toward Elohim, but under Torah of Messiah – so as to win those who are without law.”

As you can see there is a major difference in what you are reading to what the Scriptures actually say.  Right from the outset you need to realise that in the Greek language there is only one word for law and it is ‘Nomos’.  This word is used for any kind of law, man’s law, YHVH’s law, customs all that sort of thing.  We can only know how the word was meant by the context.  Most people take that every time the NT speaks of ‘the law’ it must be talking about those ‘horrible Jewish laws’, which comes out quite clearly in the paraphrase you are using.  Because the law of YHVH is not the ‘Jewish Law’ as it was given to ALL Israel.

19 For though I am free from all, I made myself a servant to all, in order to win more,”

If you read the context, which is the whole beginning part of the chapter you will see that he is saying that he is free from all MEN.  I encourage you not to twist Paul’s writings, as Peter said some would.  Read the context and get a better translation.

So he is free from all men, but because he wants to win more to Yeshua he chooses to become a servant to all men….kind of like Yeshua said we should.

20 and to the Yehuḏim I became as a Yehuḏite, that I might win Yehuḏim; to those who are under law, as under law, so as to win those who are under law; 21 to those without law, as without law – not being without Torah toward Elohim, but under Torah of Messiah – so as to win those who are without law.”

 

Now we can get to the meat of this thing.  So to win the Yehudim he became like a Yehudim.  What does that mean?  That means he went out of his way to not offend them without breaking the Torah of YHVH, which he holds in high esteem, if you read the end of the passage.  Then it says he became as one ‘under law’.  Now could this possibly be talking about people under the Torah?? Of course not.  Why?  Because it is Yehudah who lived by the Torah.  Yes they added to the Torah, but they still lived by it.

So then, who are those who are under law?  Does Paul not explain this in Romans?  Please read my ‘Free from Law or Free from Sin Part 2 and 3’ to get a clearer understanding of this.  Those who are under law are anyone who is a sinner, why?  Because all men are under sin and to be under sin you have to be under law first.  Can I become like those under law without breaking Torah?  Absolutely.

Now we get to the third example.  Paul became like those ‘without law’ to win those ‘without law’.  Who are these people?  Probably people like the barbarians who were totally lawless.  But does this mean that Paul threw away the Torah of YHVH because he became like them?  Of course not, and Paul very clearly says so in this statement in bold:

21 to those without law, as without law – not being without Torah toward Elohim, but under Torah of Messiah – so as to win those who are without law.”

Paul became as without law…what type of language is ‘as’?  Is it not a figure of speech?  If I say that “I am AS sick as a dog” am I saying that I am a dog?  Of course not, it is a figure of speech.  Paul is using this word ‘as’ in the same way, throughout this passage.  So is he saying “I became without law”?  No! He is saying “I became as without law”.  Then he VERY clearly qualifies what he means, just in case someone might accuse him of saying he broke the Torah of YHVH, by saying “…not being without Torah toward Elohim, but under Torah of Messiah…”  What is the Torah of Messiah?  Is it not the same as the Torah of Elohim?  Of course it is.

 

This is a very strange paragraph to me
Jason

I think it is both your understanding and the paraphrase you are using Jay and not the paragraph.  I encourage you to take Paul at his word when he says that he was NOT without Torah toward Elohim as this applies to all his writings and not just to here.

Shalom

 

 

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